NAME _______________________________________________
Astronomy 121
Test 1
Write your name on the test and the Scantron form. Write your student
ID number in the
appropriate area and bubble in the appropriate
numbers on the Scantron form.
When you finish the exam, turn in the test and the Scantron
form at the front desk.
Multiple Choice Questions (50 questions--2 points per question). Select the best answer.
1. The first great observational astronomer was _____ .
a. Galileo
b. Copernicus
c. Tycho Brahe
d. Johannes Kepler
e. Issac Newton
2. The Heliocentric model for the Solar System
was first proposed by _____ .
a. Galileo
b. Copernicus
c. Kepler
d. Erastosthenes
e. Aristarchus
3. Of the following planets, which goes through the full set of
phases in a cycle similar to that exhibited by the Moon?
a. Uranus
b. Venus
c. Mars
d. Jupiter
e. All of the above go through a full set of phases like the Moon.
4. Copernicus adopted the Heliocentric theory because _____ .
a. new, more accurate observations favored the Heliocentric model over the
Geocentric model
b. annual trigonometric parallax was finally detected in 1500
c. the Universe was discovered to be much larger than previously thought
d. the laws of physics, as understood in his day, indicated that the
Heliocentric model was correct
e. Copernicus found it aesthetically pleasing
5. Of the following, which was the greatest contribution to modern thinking made by the Greeks?
a. They showed that the planets orbited about the Sun.
b. Their rich mythology served as the basis for the naming of constellations.
c. Their ability to make precise astronomical observations.
d. Their development of scientific inquiry and model building.
e. Their strong belief in mysticism as the explanation for why things happen in the universe.
6. Yesterday I went outside and saw star Z rise at precisely 10 p.m.
One month ago, when did star Z rise?
a. at 8 p.m.
b. at 6 p.m.
c. at midnight
d. around 10 p.m.
e. at 2 a.m.
7. The Terrestrial planets are _____ .
a. Mercury, Jupiter, and Uranus
b. Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, and Pluto
c. Mercury, Earth, Venus, and Mars
d. Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and Uranus
e. Saturn, Pluto, Jupiter, Uranus, and Neptune
8. High tide occurred around sunset yesterday. What was the rough phase of the Moon?
a. new
b. first quarter
c. full
d. third quarter
9. Protoplanets form from _____ .
a. the collision and coalescence of dust particles
b. the merging of planetesimals
c. the capture of gas from the Solar Nebula by dust particles
d. the capture of gas from the Solar Nebula by planetesimals
10. Which statement about the day is FALSE
a. The sidereal day is based on the Earth's rotation with respect to the stars.
b. The Solar day is based on consecutive crossings of the meridian by the Sun.
c. Normal timekeeping is based on the Solar day.
d. The sidereal day is four minutes longer than the Solar day.
e. The difference between the Solar day and the sidereal day arises because the
Earth orbits about the Sun.
11. The Moon is third quarter. When will the Moon appear highest in the sky?
a. noon
b. sunset
c. midnight
d. sunrise
e. It depends on the season.
12. Venus evolved so that its surface temperature is now 800-900 F, while the
Earth evolved so that its average surface temperature is now ~70 F. The
explanation for this is that _____ .
a. Liquid oceans formed on the Earth but not on Venus, because Venus is
closer to the Sun than is the Earth.
b. Venus formed with no water, while the Earth had plentiful water at birth
c. Venus did not have a protective Ozone layer in contrast to the current Earth
d. The polar ice caps on Earth reflected sunlight efficiently; Venus did not
have polar ice caps
e. A large comet struck Venus just after it formed causing Venus to heat to
its current high temperature
13. As viewed from the the Earth, Mars exhibits retrograde episodes _____ .
a. that recur on the synodic period, roughly 2.1 years
b. that recur on the sidereal revolution period of the Earth, that is, every year
c. that recur on the sidereal revolution of Mars, that is, every 1.88 years
d. that recur randomly; they are unpredictable
e. that recur every year except for leap years
14. The path the Sun follows through the stars is _____ .
a. called the line-of-nodes
b. known as the ecliptic
c. referred to as the Saros cycle
d. parallel to the Celestial Eqauator
e. exhibits retrograde episodes every leap year
15. In an eclipse, the darkest part of the Moon's shadow is the _____ .
a. umbra
b. annulus
c. penumbra
d. equinox
e. nadir
16. What day of the year has the most hours of daylight for an observer
in Eugene?
a. the summer solstice
b. the winter solstice
c. the vernal equinox
d. the autumnal equinox
e. January 1
17. The period of the seasonal variations is the _____.
a. sidereal year
b. synodic month
c. tropical year
d. Saros cycle
e. diurnal cycle
18. The Greek credited with taking the Geocentric model to its pinnacle is _____ .
a. Aristotle
b. Aristarchus
c. Erastosthenes
d. Ptolemy
e. Hipparcos
19. Comparative planetology _____ .
a. helps us to understand the physics of the Earth
b. helps us to understand how the Solar System formed
c. helps us to learn which planets are suitable for life as we know it
d. helps us to understand planetary physics
e. All of the above are true.
20. The _____ is a measure of the strength of gravity at the surface of a
planet or a Moon.
a. atmospheric pressure
b. composition of the planet
c. escape speed
d. orbital period
e. rotational period
21. If a total Solar eclipse occurred 3 weeks ago, what is the
approximate phase of the Moon today?
a. new
b. first quarter
c. full
d. third quarter
e. waxing or waning gibbous
22. The daily paths of stars for an observer situated at the North
Pole of the Earth are best described as _______ .
a. circles inclined at an angle of 23.5o to the horizon
b. circles centered on the zenith of the observer
c. ellipses that make angles of 45o with the horizon
d. semi-circles centered on the East point on the horizon
e. semi-circles centered on the north point on the horizon
23. The cause of the seasonal variations in Eugene is _____ .
a. the varying distance of the Earth from the Sun
b. the variation in the length of the Solar Day
c. the raising and lowering of the tides by the Moon
d. the variation in the directness (angle) with which sunlight strikes the ground
e. the local topography in the Eugene area
24. Of the following items, which one need NOT be explained directly
by models for the formation of the Solar System?
a. The planets all orbit about the Sun in the same sense.
b. The existence of Terrestrial, Jovian, and Icy planets
c. The composition of the Jovian planets
d. The unusual composition of Mercury
25. The Earth travels fastest in its orbit in January, when it is the
closest to the Sun. This can be understood through an application of
_______ .
a. Kepler's law of ellipses
b. Kepler's law of equal areas
c. Kepler's harmonic law
d. a combination of Kepler's law of ellipses and the harmonic law
e. a combination of the Keplers law of ellipses and the law of equal areas
26. Retrograde motion is _______ .
a. the reversal of the Sun's motion through the stars at the solstices
b. the reversal of the motion of a planet through the stars
c. the switching of the hours of daylight and darkness on the equinoxes
d. the shifting of a star's position due to the revolution of the Earth
about the Sun
27. The key to understanding the large difference between
the Jovian planets and the Terrestrial planets is _____ .
a. noting that water was able to exist in solid form (ice) starting around
the orbits of the Jovian planets
b. noting that the outer Solar System contains more hydrogen than does the
inner Solar System
c. the ability of rocky material to be in solid form only around the orbits
of the Jovian planets
d. that there was no gas in the inner Solar System
e. We do not understand why the Jovian planets are so different from the
Terrestrial planets.
28. Which concept is not a part of Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion?
a. All planetary orbits are ellipses.
b. The square of the planet's orbital period is equal to the cube of its average
distance from the Sun.
c. A planet moves the fastest in its orbit at perihelion.
d. Epicycles are needed to explain the varying brightnesses of the planets.
e. The line that connects the planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas in
equal times.
29. Kepler's third law of planetary motion says that ______ .
a. a planet moves more rapidly in its orbit when near the Sun than when it is far from the Sun
b. the Sun sits at the center of planetary orbits
c. slow moving planets are closer to the Sun than are fast moving planets
d. planets close to the Sun have shorter orbital periods than those far from the Sun
e. retrograde episodes occur every sidereal revolution period
30. The currently accepted theory for the origin of the Moon postulates that the
young Earth was struck by a Mars-sized object which led to the formation of the
Moon. This scenario is supported by _____ .
a. the similarity of the average density of the Moon to the density of rocks found in the Earth's crust
b. the relative scarcity of volatile materials in the Moon
c. the spherical shape of the Moon
d. only a and b
e. a, b, & c
31. Eclipses occur _____ .
a. every month at new Moon
b. every two weeks at the quarter Moon phases
c. every month at full Moon
d. roughly every six months
e. once a year at the first new Moon
32. An observer sees half of the Celestial Sphere
over the course of a year. At which of the following locations
does he or she live?
a. the North Pole
b. Eugene, OR (or near Eugene, OR)
c. the equator
d. near Santiago, Chile (latitude = 30o S)
e. any of the above sites.
33. Of the following objects which goes through the full cycle of
phases in a manner similar to the phases shown by the Moon?
a. Uranus
b. Venus
c. Mars
d. Jupiter
e. All of the above go through a full set of phases like the Moon.
34. The chemical composition of Jupiter and Saturn is
most similar _______ .
a. to that of the Sun
b. to that of Venus
c. to that of the Earth
d. to that of Mars
e. to that of Mercury
35. The daily motion of celestial objects is caused by _______ .
a. the Earth's revolution about the Sun.
b. the Earth's rotation on its axis.
c. the motion of the Moon about the Earth.
d. the precession of the Earth's axis of rotation.
36. On the Autumnal Equinox, the Sun _____ .
a. reaches its farthest point south of the Celestial equator
b. crosses the Celestial equator moving northward
c. reaches its highest point north of the Celestial equator
d. crosses the Celestial equator moving southward
e. circles parallel to the horizon for an observer at the equator
37. Compared to the Terrestrial planets, Jovian planets
are, on average, _____ .
a. more dense and more massive
b. less dense and more massive
c. more dense and less massive
d. less dense and less massive
38. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Terrestrial planets?
a. They exhibit a very wide range of densities, 0.1 gram per cubic
centimeter to more than 10 grams per cubic centimeter.
b. They are composed of rocky material and are much more massive
than are the Jovian planets.
c. They have small diameters compared to the Jovian planets.
d. They all have massive carbon dioxide atmospheres.
e. All of the above are characteristics of the Terrestrial planets.
39. Which of the following is a FALSE statement about the motions
of the planets?
a. The planets move through the Zodiac constellations, usually in the
west-to-east direction.
b. Only the planets whose orbits are larger in size than that of
the Earth exhibit retrograde motion
c. The planets orbit roughly in the ecliptic plane.
d. Only planets whose orbits are smaller in size than that of the Earth
exhibit a new phase for observers on or near the Earth.
e. The planets rise in the east and set in the west, even when they undergo
retrograde motion.
40. What factor explains the formation of the distinct types of planets, the
Terrestrials, Jovians, and Icy planets found in our Solar System?
a. The spin (angular momentum) of the forming planet
b. The amount of dust particles in the Solar Nebula
c. The variation in the temperature of the Solar Nebula
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
41. What phenomenon accounts for the 26,000 year wobble which shifts the location of
the North Celestial Pole among the stars?
a. rotation
b. revolution
c. precession
d. the tides
42. According to Copernicus, retrograde motion _____ .
a. could only be understood if the stars were very close to the Earth
b. was due to the epicyclic motion of the planet
c. would occur when a faster moving inner planet caught up and passed a
slower moving outer planet
d. occurred because of the slow drift of the Earth's rotation axis caused by
precession
e. could not be easily understood in a heliocentric model
43. Terrestrial planets formed from the coalescence of _____ .
a. large asteroids
b. gases in the Solar Nebula
c. planetesimals and then protoplanets
d. minor bodies, such as comets and asteroids
e. small random objects, such as moons and debris from the outer Solar System
44. The density of a planet gives strong clues to the _______ .
a. age of the planet
b. sidereal day of the planet
c. chemical composition of the interior of the planet
d. chemical composition and mass of the atmosphere of the planet
e. existence of tides on the planet
45. Which of the following planets has a ring system?
a. Jupiter
b. Saturn
c. Uranus
d. Neptune
e. All of the above planets have ring systems
46. Morning and evening stars are not stars. They are
_______ .
a. actually comets
b. the Moon, just before a Lunar eclipse
c. actually only the Sun when it is near the Vernal Equinox
d. the planets Mercury and Venus
e. Wait, the morning star is Mercury and the evening star is Venus
47. What important event occurred when the Sun turned-on and
developed an intense Solar Wind (its T Tauri phase)?
a. Jupiter collided with a large Mars-like planetesimal producing Venus.
b. The Earth developed free oxygen in its atmosphere.
c. Dust rapidly formed signaling the start of planet formation.
d. The planet formation process ended.
e. Protoplanets started to form from planetesimals
48. What role is played by the irregularities
in the Solar System in terms of theories
of the formation of the Solar System?
a. They are too minor to play a role; astronomers ignore them.
b. They don't affect the fundamental model, but do require that theories
be flexibile enough to account for irregularities
c. Theories for the formation of the Solar System are based entirely
on the irregularities found among the planets.
d. The Solar System has no irregularities; it is perfect in form.
49. As the Solar Nebula contracted, _____ .
a. it spun faster and flattened as it shrank
b. it spun faster and shed rings of material as it shrank
c. it cooled forming a solid, spinning disk made of rocky materials
d. its spin caused dense materials to sink toward the rotation axis and
light materials to float
50. If an object were abundant in refractory elements, but had few
volatile elements, which of the following is the most likely
(simplest) explanation?
a. The object was formed in a region of low temperature
b. The object was formed in a region of high temperature
c. The object was formed in a region which was first hot,
then cold, then hot, and then cold again
d. The object was formed in the Sun and then ejected into the
Solar System